The Vocabulary of Salvation

Below is a hand out I got last year as part of my church’s leadership development program.  It is called The Vocabulary of Salvation and I have found it very helpful and handy. It was put together by Smedly Yates, one of my elders and I am thankful to him for this labor of love.

Adoption – believers are brought into God’s family, made heirs of salvation, and given the rights and privileges in keeping with being sons and daughters of God.
• Ephesians 1:5
• Romans 8:15-17

Atonement – from the English words at-one-ment. Used to describe the twin ideas of substitution and satisfaction. The sinner is made to be at one with God through a substitute sacrifice which satisfies God’s anger against
• Romans 3:25

Calling – God’s drawing a sinner to repentance and faith in the finished work of Jesus Christ at the cross.
• Romans 8:30
• 2 Peter 1:10
• 2 Timothy 1:9

Conversion – the change of inclination and nature wrought by God in the repenting sinner.
• Acts 15:3
• Matthew 18:3

Election – God’s sovereign act of choosing some for salvation.
• Ephesians 1:4
• Romans 8:33

Expiation – the removal of sin and guilt.
• Hebrews 9:26

Faith – trust in the finished work of Christ for salvation. Faith is a gift and includes intellect, affection, and volition.

Glorification – final and irreversible conformity to the image of Christ which takes place for believers upon their entrance into heaven.
• Romans 8:30
• 1 Corinthians 15:42-43

Grace – the unmerited favor of God.
• Titus 3:7
• Ephesians 2:8-10

Imputation – God credits to believing sinners the perfect righteousness of Christ, and God credits to Jesus at the cross all the unrighteousness of every believer.
• 2 Corinthians 5:21
• Romans 4:4-6

Justification – God declares sinners righteous based on the finished work of Jesus Christ at the cross. Sinners are reckoned by God to have fulfilled all of God’s righteous requirements, and to have never broken any of His commands.
• Romans 4:5
• Romans 3:28
• Romans 3:24

Perseverance – those whom God regenerates will persevere to the end and be glorified.
• Romans 8:28-30
• Philippians 1:6

Predestination – God’s election of some to salvation before the world began.
• Ephesians 1:5,11
• Romans 8:29-30

Propitiation – satisfaction of divine wrath.
• Romans 3:25
• 1 John 2:2

Mercy – the relinquishing of deserved punishment.
• Romans 9:15-16
• Titus 3:5

Reconciliation – the making of peace between parties at enmity with each other.
• Romans 5:1, 10
• Ephesians 2:12-18
• 2 Corinthians 2:18

Redemption – the purchase of a slave for a price. God rescued sinners from their slavery to sin, corruption, and death by paying the price of His own Son.
• Romans 3:24

Regeneration – new birth accomplished by the Holy Spirit.
• John 3:3-8
• Titus 3:4-7

Repentance – literally, a change of mind; the turning from sin to Christ.
• 2 Peter 3:9

Salvation – rescue.
Past – believers have been saved from sin and its consequences.
• Ephesians 2:5
Present – believers are being saved from sin and from this world.
• 2 Corinthians 2:15
Future – believers will be saved ultimately when glorified.
• Romans 5:10

Sanctification – being set apart.
Positional – believers are even now set apart unto God, seated in the heavenlies with Christ.
• Ephesians 2:6
Practical – believers are being set apart, progressively being conformed into the image of Christ by the Holy Spirit. We will in eternity be completely sanctified!
• Romans 6:6
• 2 Corinthians 3:18
• 2 Thessalonians 2:13
• Romans 8:29

Spirit Baptism – believers are placed by the Spirit into Christ and into the body of Christ.
• Matthew 3:11
• 1 Corinthians 12:13

Union with Christ – believers are united to Christ.
• Ephesians “in Christ” ie, 1:1,3,4,7,10,etc….
• Romans 6:5

  1. I think you have a wrong view of imputation:

    In my study on this topic of imputed righteousness, the Greek term “logizomai” is the English term for “reckon/impute/credit/etc,” (all terms are basically equivalently used) and when I look up that term in a popular lexicon here is what it is defined as:

    QUOTE: “This word deals with reality. If I “logizomai” or reckon that my bank book has $25 in it, it has $25 in it. Otherwise I am deceiving myself. This word refers to facts not suppositions.”

    The lexicon states this term first and foremost refers to the actual status of something. So if Abraham’s faith is “logizomai as righteousness,” it must be an actually righteous act of faith, otherwise (as the Lexicon says) “I am deceiving myself.” This seems to rule out any notion of an alien righteousness, and instead points to a local/inherent righteousness.

    The Lexicon gives other examples where “logizomai” appears, here are some examples:
    Rom 3:28 Therefore we conclude [logizomai] that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.

    Rom 4:4 Now to the one who works, his wages are not counted [logizomai] as a gift but as his due.

    Rom 6:11 Likewise reckon [logizomai] ye also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord.

    Rom 8:18 For I reckon [logizomai] that the sufferings of this present time are not worthy to be compared with the glory which shall be revealed in us.

    Notice in these examples that “logizomai” means to consider the actual truth of an object. In 3:28 Paul ‘reckons’ faith saves while the Law does not, this is a fact, the Law never saves. In 4:4 the worker’s wages are ‘reckoned’ as a debt because the boss is in debt to the worker, not giving a gift to him. In 6:11 the Christian is ‘reckoned’ dead to sin because he is in fact dead to sin. In 8:18 Paul ‘reckons’ the present sufferings as having no comparison to Heavenly glory, and that is true because nothing compares to Heavenly glory.

    To use logizomai in the “alien status” way would mean in: (1) 3:28 faith doesn’t really save apart from works, but we are going to go ahead and say it does; (2) 4:4 the boss gives payment to the worker as a gift rather than obligation/debt; (3) 6:11 that we are not really dead to sin but are going to say we are; (4) 8:18 the present sufferings are comparable to Heaven’s glory.
    This cannot be right.

    So when the text plainly says “faith is logizomai as righteousness,” I must read that as ‘faith is reckoned as a truly righteous act’, and that is precisely how Paul explains that phrase in 4:18-22. That despite the doubts that could be raised in Abraham’s heart, his faith grew strong and convinced and “that is why his faith was credited as righteousness” (v4:22). This is also confirmed by noting the only other time “credited as righteousness” appears in Scripture, Psalm 106:30-31, where Phinehas’ righteous action was reckoned as such. This is confirmed even more when one compares another similar passage, Hebrews 11:4, where by faith Abel was commended as righteous.

    • Hi Nick,

      Thank you for reading and for you response that you have given in such detail (especially with one the Greek word definitions). There are a couple of things that I want to show you in how you’re reading the passage though.

      It sounds like you are misunderstanding what Russ meant by imputation. There is not alien imputation as you call, but one that resides and stands factual. Which is the manner it is always used in the original language. It refers to a specific instance when a something factual has taken place that can be stood upon and rested in.

      When Abraham is credited with righteousness it is because he logizomai was in God’s promise not in his faith. You are applying his reckoning/count/calculation to his faith when that is not what he looked too, but instead to what God’s promise was. That is what is being imputed. God’s works (His promise’s) and that is instilled into those with faith. Also, the righteousness is not an act but is a noun dikaiosynē which describes the condition of an individual not their actions. Therefore his faith is not a righteous act in Romans 4 but is Abrahams state but he has faith in God’s promises.This is the same righteousness that Paul spoke of earlier in the chapter that Russ was speaking about in verse 6. Then he, Paul, describes Abraham in a like manner…and he explains that this states comes outside of Abraham verse 10-12 specifically. Paul’s point is that Abraham did nothing at all, yet was credited/reckoned as righteous through faith before God.

      So the word logizomai speaks to specific events or realities that are founded in truth and are factual. Which I believe you agree with, but I think the difficulty is that you are using the word as if it modified others. I would revisit the chapter of Romans 3 and 4 specifically to help see a full picture of what Russ and I are speaking about.

      Hope this helps.

      Grace and Peace.

        • Nick
        • July 14th, 2010

        Hi Derek,

        You said: “There is not alien imputation as you call, but one that resides and stands factual. Which is the manner it is always used in the original language. It refers to a specific instance when a something factual has taken place that can be stood upon and rested in.”

        Could you show me some clear examples of logizomai being used as you describe? The reason why I used the term ‘alien’ is because some say God gives Abraham “Christ’s Righteousness” and counts this in place of Abraham’s personal unrighteousness.

        I’m applying logizomai to Abraham’s faith because that’s plainly what the text says, “his faith was reckoned as righteousness.” As for dikaiosune being applied to actions, I see it such in examples like Psalm 106:30-31 and in other places in Romans (e.g. Rom 6:13).

        Maybe we have the same understanding of logizomai, I’m just curious to see how it fits with Russ’ original comments on “Impute”.

    • Tracy
    • July 13th, 2010

    “Some of the “vocabulary” is not just mere words, but are entire doctrinal constructs such as the doctrines of election and predestination. Both are still sufficiently argued today to be flawed.”

  2. Tracy, thank you for your comment. You are correct the vocabulary is more than mere words; there are terms that are derived from the bible or God’s words for use and as result they have implications on doctrine. I am not here to debate Calvinism or any other ism. I would ask that you would read each of the verses above in there context (read 10 verse before and after) to see if they are talking about the category headings. If not let me know. I would ask the same of you Nick.

  3. Nick, are you arguing that God owes us a debt? Could you take a minute and explain how anyone is righteous in light of the explict comments about us all being evil in romans 2 and 3. I look forward to hearing from you.

      • Nick
      • July 14th, 2010

      Hi Russ,

      No, I’m not arguing God owes us a debt. Just the opposite. As to your question: nobody is righteous due to sin, but that doesn’t mean they cannot be made righteous. 1 John 1:9 says if we confess our sin Jesus will “cleanse us of all unrighteousness.” And Romans 4:6-8 is primarily about forgiving sin.

  4. Hi Nick,

    Psalm 106 is using the word tsĕdaqah which is Hebrew not Greek. But even the Hebrew word is still a noun and refers to a state. It does carry the definition of being able to refer to righteous acts but it is only done when referring to YHWH (because He is righteous in and of Himself and therefore can actually do complete righteous acts). These instances are found in 1 Samuel 12:7, Daniel 9:16, Micah 6:5. As for Romans 6:13 it’s still being used as a noun. You presenting your members are not the “righteous act”, but your members/instruments are to be instruments of righteousness to God (the actual state, declared righteous). Do you see the difference?

    For logizomai you are asking about two different things. Verse 9 in Romans 4 is not what Russ was speaking to in reference to imputation. This is speaking about faith as you stated, but notice when you continue to read…Paul isn’t stating it as a proclaimation. He first ask a question and then a rhetorical question as to what they (Jews) would usually respond to the question he proposed. Then he, Paul, explains exactly where this faith comes from and how it is definite and absolute which is based, founded, and rooted upon the promises of God and not because of anything Abraham did. The entire chapter speaks to how God is faithful and works, but you’re looking at one verse without looking at what the rest of the chapter is speaking too.

    The reason why Abrahams face is logizomai is because of all that God has done to secure it and because of who God is. Every other instance in the chapter of logizomai refers to God’s promise to Abraham, David, and His people…this is what Abrahams faith flows out of and why it can be logizomai (because it is rooted in God’s doing). Abraham wouldn’t be declared righteous without faith, and he wouldn’t have faith without God…it starts with God. As far as God taking Jesus righteousness and put it upon us while Jesus bears our unrighteous guilt, this imputation is all within the other scripture that Russ referenced (2 Corinthians 5:16-21). If you want to see more just let me know.

    I hope this helps explain some.

    Grace and Peace,

      • Nick
      • July 14th, 2010

      Hi Derek,

      I was under the impression Psalm 106 was identical to Gen 15:6 in both the Hebrew OT and the Greek OT. I probably need clarification on what you mean by “state,” since I interpret this as a righteous act. Phinehas’ good work was reckoned as a righteous state/status? Same for texts like Romans 6:13 “offer the parts of your body to him as instruments of righteousness”. I’m not seeing the difference.

      I’m only partially following your comments on “faith counted as righteousness.” Paul was asking rhetorical questions, but his response was indeed the truth and not an incorrect Jewish answer. I don’t think the chapter is a contrast between what Abraham “did” versus “belief”, since belief was a profound act of his in Romans 4:18-22 (“this is why his faith was credited as righteousness”).

      I’ve seen people reference 2 Cor 5:21 a lot, but I think too much is read into it. The term logizomai simply isn’t used. I’m open to seeing more, hopefully more solid evidence.

      • Hey Nick,

        Yes, the word for righteousness (tsĕdaqah) is the same in both those scenarios. What I mean been state is that the word righteous is being used as a noun. You are using it as an adjective or verb which is not it’s intended purpose in the context. Righteousness is the actual object which is. When we say that God is righteous, good, just, love we don’t mean soley that He does those acts, but that He in and of Himself possess those characteristics or descriptives. He is righteousness and righteousness is defined by God. From that all acts that He does are therefore righteous. That is what I mean by state. Abraham, Phinehas, David, etc. there righteousness is their condition. Where they stand before God (unrighteous or righteous and it’s not based upon anything they have done, but it’s just their condition). Please let me know if that clarifies everything.

        Yes, I’m not saying that Pauls response was incorrect by any means, but it is not the answer in and of itself. He gives the answer in verses 10-17 (especially 16 when Paul speaks to how the faith of those under the Law and not under the Law still receive the blessing promised to Abraham). That’s the original question…where does this blessing come from, which is what brings about Pauls response. The verses you pointed out 18-22 speaks about Abrahams faith being rested in God’s promise, and that is why Abraham was righteous. Let me ask you this…what is it that Abraham believes and has faith in? Maybe that will help answer what we’re speaking too.

        Here are more verses that speak to imputation in regards to Christ righteousness being given to those of the faith:
        Romans 3:20-22, 5:16-21, 10:3-5; Galatians 2:20-21, 3:5-7; Ephesians 4:23-25; Philippians 3:8-10; 1 Peter 2:23-25; 1 John 2:28-29

        Grace and Peace

  5. Nick, Thanks so much for talking about this important issue. I am thankful that I simply misunderstood you earlier. It is good to see that we are on the same page in regard to faith saving alone. In regards to imputation I would agree with Derek’s line of argument. Thanks again for being willing to talk and discuss it. I am thank you that you commented because it sent me to the Scriputre to take a look. That is always a good thing to have happen. Thanks again for your comments.

  6. Hi Derek,

    By “state” then you are referring to an inner quality of someone…but how does this mesh with forensic justification?

    You asked: “Let me ask you this…what is it that Abraham believes and has faith in?”
    Abraham believes and has his faith in God and that God will deliver on His Promises.

    • Hi Nick,

      When I say state I mean the condition of the soul of a person. Can you explain what you mean by forensic justification, I want to make sure I have the same understanding as you do.

      As for Abraham, I agree with everything you stated. Did Abraham have to do anything for God to establish or make those promises?

        • Nick
        • July 19th, 2010

        Sorry for the delay.

        The way I understand forensic justification is that one is ‘found righteous’ (justified) upon having a record of 100% perfect obedience to God’s law.

        Since man is fallen and cannot meet this standard, it is said Jesus kept the Law in their place, and ‘imputed’ this perfect record to them. This is essentially “forensic justification”.

        You asked me if Abraham had to do anything for God to establish or make those promises. According to Scripture, the answer is yes. In fact places like Genesis 26:4-5 state Abraham received those blessings because he remained obedient to all of God’s demands.

    • mike
    • July 19th, 2010

    I would like to add some comments about Paul’s argument in Romans. I’m assuming that we agree Paul is arguing that salvation for a sinner is God declaring said sinner to possess God’s righteousness through faith in the propitiating death of Jesus Christ(Rom 3:21-26). If I could address Nick’s citation of Rom. 4:4, Paul is making the case that Abraham is declared righteous because of his faith. In 4:3 he says,
    ” For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness.” 4:4-5 is Paul clarifying that if it is by works(anything that Abraham has done himself) then it is a debt owed(v.4) but he proves that is not the case in v. 5 because God declared Abraham righteous,
    “And to the one who does not work but believes in [2] him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,” I find it to be logically inconsistent with what Paul is arguing to say that faith is an act that is performed by which a man has righteousness in and of himself.
    If we go back to the beginning of What Paul is arguing in how a man is justified before God, we find that it is not his righteousness that is required but God’s 3:21-22
    “But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the Prophets bear witness to it— 22 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe.” Note that a man cannot be righteous before God unless he has the righteousness of God, the righteousness that God Himself possesses. Also note that this comes to the sinner through faith in Jesus Christ, faith is the vessel that delivers the righteousness God possesses to the sinner.This is necessary because all men, be it Jew or Gentile(heathen or moralist(chs. 1-3:20)) have fallen short of the glory of God. So to follow Paul’s line of reasoning,and I’m paraphrasing, all men are sinners, the Law reveals this further, but the righteousness of God which is necessary to have peace with Him is available to all who believe in Jesus Christ, who died as a sacrifice to do away with the wrath of God toward all sinners who believe in Him. Ch. 4-5 is Paul’s further clarification of the means by which a sinner obtains God’s righteousness(ch. 4), and how the righteousness of God is actually given to the sinners who believe in Jesus Christ(Ch. 5). I agree with what Nick cited from the lexicon that logizomai first and foremost refers to the actual status of something. Abraham was actually in possession of God’s own righteousness. This is because, as Romans 3:21-ch. 5 indicates, God has given it to him through faith.
    I hope these observations are helpful to the discussion.
    Love in Christ,

      • Nick
      • July 19th, 2010

      Hi Mike,

      Here are my comments based on your own.

      I’m not in agreement that ‘works’ in Romans 4 is “anything that Abraham does”, since Paul is not speaking of ‘works in general’ but rather “works of the Law”. This is clear from the context. Further, would it make any sense to say God saves someone who has faith in Him but doesn’t love Him? 1 Cor 16:22 says if someone doesn’t love Jesus they are cursed, so it’s wrong to think “no works of the Law” also implies “no love”.

      I would agree that the saving righteousness we need is “the righteousness that God Himself possesses,” but I believe that God infuses that into man. The Righteousness of God the Father is certainly not a legal type righteousness, for the Father never had to earn this by keeping the Law, it’s a divine and not created/earned righteousness.

      You said that logizomai entails “Abraham was actually in possession of God’s own righteousness.” And I would agree with this. The term ‘logizomai’ does not entail the use of an alien status.

  7. Hi Nick,

    I’ll start with the Abraham portion. God established his promises and covenant before Abraham did anything. The fact that Abraham’s response was to obey God comes after the promises. So Abraham’s obedience is dependent upon God intially making promises, and God making the promises is not dependent upon Abraham responding, obeying, or anything else. God makes the promises before Abraham does anything. Yes that verse speaks of Abraham’s obedience and how God’s promise will continue to Isaac, but I’m asking about the reason God established the promise.

    Forensic justification: To be declared righteous according to the standard of Jesus Christ. You ask me how does it mesh…I don’t see how it doesn’t. For Jesus to declare someone completely righteous, their position before God, it comes from His standard and righteousness. That is given to the sinner, while the sinners unrighteousness is placed upon Jesus and judged. This is forensic justification…God declaring the sinner righteous (all done as a legal/trial action).

    Grace and Peace

    • I guess I’m just still confused on what you took issue with on Russ’s verse reference for imputation.

      • Nick
      • July 20th, 2010

      Hi Derek,

      I would agree that Abraham’s obedience is dependent upon God initially making the promises, else there would be nothing for Abraham to put his faith into to begin with. But I think the texts are clear that these Promises wouldn’t have been maintained or gone through had Abraham disobeyed at any time.

      For example, a father can graciously promise his son a new car if he graduates, but graduation in itself doesn’t get someone a new car. If the son is doing well in school but later drops out, the promise wont come to pass. This is how I understand the plain reading of passages such as Gen 26:4-5.

      There might be some cross-talk going on with the forensic justification thing. You had spoken of how righteousness corresponded to the inner quality of someone, yet I still don’t see how this fits with righteousness being meeting a ‘standard’. If someone is unrighteous in themself, but can receive an external righteousness, then ‘righteousness’ here cannot be an inner quality of the soul.

      • Hi Nick,

        So for Abraham it sounds like the place we are hung up is whether or not the promises of God were contingent upon Abraham’s obedience? It sounds like you’re saying that without Abraham’s obedience the fulfillment of the promises from God would not carry on nor come to fruition? I am correct in restating this?

        As far as forensic justification…when God declares the sinner righteous that person is now considered righteous in the courtroom of God. I’m not speaking about some mystical inner quality of the soul (not implying you were, just clarifying), but the actual soul of a person…the eternal person is deemed righteous. This does not mean that individual will never sin again, or is perfect, or that all of their deeds are now righteous. We see numerous examples of this, but here are a few:
        Paul in Romans 7 (battle with the flesh)
        David 2 Samuel 11 (David commits murder and adultery – after God establishes the promise with him, that originally started with Abraham)
        Abraham Genesis 20 (lies about Sarah)

        These are just three examples of sin happening in the life of those that are faithful to God, and yet God still continues to bless and fulfill His promises toward them.

    • Nick
    • July 21st, 2010

    Hi Derek,

    You are reading me correctly, those promises were contingent on Abraham persevering in obedience to God. (That is what I see in texts like Gen 26:4f and Gen 22:15-18, etc.)

    You went on to give examples of “sin happening in the life of those that are faithful to God, and yet God still continues to bless,” but I would add some clarification/objection here to the three examples you gave.

    – Romans 7 does speak of a battle with the flesh, but that doesn’t imply God will still bless someone who sins. In Rom6, among other places, Paul says to live in sin leads to death/damnation.

    – David did commit murder and adultery after God established promises with him, but it’s a leap to conclusions to say this wasn’t halted when David sinned. Psalm 32 (and 51) speak of David repenting of those sins, and Paul in Rom 4:6-8 calls this a moment of justification. Thus, David lost his justification from those grave sins, and he recovered it only upon repenting in Psalm 32/51. Also, we know David did suffer punishments from God for his sins.

    -Abraham Genesis 20 did lie, but it was more of a half lie since she was related to Abraham and thus was considered a sister in a true sense according to ancient manner of family reckoning (20:12). This sin must not have been severe enough for God to punish Abraham, since there is no record that God was displeased with Abraham.

    • Hi Nick,

      I have to completely disagree with your statements for a couple of reasons.

      1. With the Abrahamic Covenant, Genesis 12 & 15 are the actual start of the covenant and when it was initiated. Notice that God is the only one who walks through the path (between the animals) and therefore shows that this is an unconditional covenant in which Abraham is just the beneficiary of this blessing. His faithfulness is the product of that faith being rooted within Him because God has granted that to him, and has made this promise to him. Also, there is no such thing as a half lie…either it’s all truth or it’s not, and to say that God doesn’t look at any sin as an indignation against His holy character and who He is, is to have a disconnect with the holiness of God. Never will God tolerate sin, and not respond in righteous judgment/wrath upon it. That wrath/judgment will either come to fruition in Hell or has been poured out upon Jesus Christ (depending on the individual and whether or not they are true followers of Jesus Christ). Here are a few examples of God’s hatred of ALL sin Ecclesiastes 12:13-14, Psalm 7:11-12,76:7-9, Isaiah 50:8-10.

      2. Romans 7 is showing the struggle of the flesh that we all have, but when you continue into chapter 8 you see that the whole point of that [specific] chapter is to show how God is faithful to His children and will bless them regardless of their sin because they are His. Now this isn’t a free card to go sin, because your response and sin with sin is the fruition of the faith you have been instilled with. So in Romans 6 Paul is talking about how that fight needs to be evident, but for those who continually desire sin they have not received eternal life (through faith in Christ) and therefore it will lead to death. But that is not the case for those in the faith…sin should lead to repentance. Not in a salvation since, but in a continuous longing for God over sin (this is the point of Romans 6), and then Paul assures us that this is a process (in Romans 7-8) until our glorification when we are completely holy before Jesus Christ! So Paul does speak to the promised blessing…just keep going to the next chapter.

      3. David did suffer punishment for his sins, but not eternally. Disciple for the righteous (God’s people) is different and is meant for our sanctification (Romans 6) to lead us closer to God. It is not an act of indignation or wrath towards our sin because Jesus Christ has taken that. This is an act of love to make us more Christ-like (Hebrews 12:4-13 *especially starting at verse 9). Also, justification is a declaration of our legal status before God in which He, Himself proclaims it. If He has declared us righteous, why would He then deem us unrighteous. That would mean that Christ did for naught, and God is not faithful to finish what He began (Read Romans 8 and Philippians 1:5-7). No where in Psalm 32 or 51 do we see that this is the moment of David’s justification…Paul doesn’t say that it is (as it sounded like you believe), but instead Paul uses David’s repentance as an example of what biblical repentance looks like and what takes place in the heart of a believer. He is not saying this is when David was justified, but when you are justified it can look like this, and He further explains how David was justified so he could respond as he did in Psalm 32 and 51. More than likely David was justified somewhere around 1 Samuel 13 (verse 14 speaks of David). So him actual justification was long before these sins, and these sins didn’t affect his standing before God, but instead his response just further gave testimony that he was a man after God’s own heart.

      Brother I pray that you don’t believe one can lose salvation, and that are daily walk has any bearing on our eternal state…I would just ask that you go through Romans 8 and explain how we can possibly lose our status as being justified. Because if we can that means that we have control over the salvation that Jesus has granted and given to us, and therefore can deny or accept when we want it. If it’s His to give, take, keep, and finish how would we ever have any bearing on it’s fruition?

      Grace and Peace

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